Sometimes Muslims claim that the Bible clearly is corrupted because we find several verses like:
Some Muslims then asks:
This question is answered well in the following articles on other web sites:
The above are Christian answers given to general sceptic inquirers not originating from an interaction with Muslims. For the Muslim - Christian dialog another aspect might be helpful.
The Qur'an also makes references to revealed books which are not accessible to us today, or statements that are supposedly in these books, which cannot be found in them.
Where are the book(s) of Abraham? See also this article.
If this book is nowhere to be found, would a Muslim then conclude that this means the Qur'an is corrupted? If not, why not? Why would the same issue then contribute to his conviction that the Bible is corrupted?
Would it not be a matter of intellectual honesty to employ the SAME standards for evaluating the Bible and the Qur'an?
The Qur'an speaks about many revealed books, none of which can be found according to common Muslim understanding.
[Note: We do not agree with the following arguments. They are only summarized because they show the inconsistency of the Muslim reasoning. Their content is discussed elsewhere on this site.]
Some Muslims claim that the Biblical gospels are by Matthew, Mark, Luke and John, and therefore they are not "the book of Jesus". The book the Qur'an speaks about is missing. Also arguments are made often that Moses can't be the author of the current Torah. So, this book is not available either. But since the Qur'an refers to them, and they cannot be found, does that mean the Qur'an itself is corrupted?
Many Muslims believe that this statement is to be found in the "Injil of Jesus". But it is not found anywhere in the Biblical gospels.
Nowhere, either in the Torah or the Gospels is any mentioning of such a prophet to come, no matter whether we want to understand "ummi" as illiterate or gentile. In addition, there are other problems with Surah 7:157.
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